Ques- Is it reosonable to assert that the product F(x)=f(x)g(x) has no derivative at x=xo if:
the function f(x) has dervative at point xo,and the function #(x) has no derivative at this point ?
Ques- Is it reosonable to assert that the product F(x)=f(x)g(x) has no derivative at x=xo if:
the function f(x) has dervative at point xo,and the function #(x) has no derivative at this point ?