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Ques- Is it reosonable to assert that the product F(x)=f(x)g(x) has no derivative at x=xo if: the function f(x) has dervative at point xo,and the function #(x) has no derivative at this point ?

Ques- Is it reosonable to assert that the product F(x)=f(x)g(x) has no derivative at x=xo if:


the function f(x) has dervative at point xo,and the function #(x) has no derivative at this point ?


Grade:11

1 Answers

AskiitiansExpert Abhinav Batra
25 Points
10 years ago

Dear Raiyan

F(x)=f(x)g(x)

F`(x)=f`(x)g(x)+f(x)g`(x)   (Using the chain rule)

at point x=x0

F`(x0)=f`(x0)g(x0)+f(x0)g`(x0)

But  g`(x0) does not exist .so F`(x0) al so does not exist.

ALL THE BEst

ABhinav batra


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