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Grade: 12
        When 2 functions f(x) and g(x) make a function fog(x) which is injective then is it necessary that g(x) must be injective too.
6 years ago

Answers : (1)

Sher Mohammad
IIT Delhi
askIITians Faculty
174 Points
							f(g(x1))=f(g(x1)) , should imply x1=x2
g(x1)=g(x2) , from the injective property ,
suppose g is not injective, imply fog(x) is not injective, since given fog injective imply g must be injective.

sher mohammad
b.tech, iitdelhi

6 years ago
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