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When 2 functions f(x) and g(x) make a function fog(x) which is injective then is it necessary that g(x) must be injective too.
f(g(x1))=f(g(x1)) , should imply x1=x2g(x1)=g(x2) , from the injective property ,suppose g is not injective, imply fog(x) is not injective, since given fog injective imply g must be injective.sher mohammadb.tech, iitdelhi
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