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When 2 functions f(x) and g(x) make a function fog(x) which is injective then is it necessary that g(x) must be injective too.

Aaditya Kulkarni , 12 Years ago
Grade 12
anser 1 Answers
Sher Mohammad
f(g(x1))=f(g(x1)) , should imply x1=x2
g(x1)=g(x2) , from the injective property ,
suppose g is not injective, imply fog(x) is not injective, since given fog injective imply g must be injective.

sher mohammad
b.tech, iitdelhi

Last Activity: 12 Years ago
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