Dinesh Kumar
Last Activity: 3 Years ago
Let f(x)= tanx-x. = F`(x)=sec^2x-1 >0
Foe every x belongs to (0,π/2)
Since f(x) is increasing foe every
X belongs to (0,π/2)
Now , x>0 = f(x)>f(0)
= F(0)>0. ( Since , f(0) = tan0-0 =0-0=0)
: Tanx-x>0
Therefore tanx>x foe every x belongs to (0,π/2)