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Let f : R? R be defined by f(x) = x2 for all x? R. Then f is a many one onto mapping ?

Let f : R? R be defined by f(x) = x2 for all x? R. Then f is a many one onto mapping ?

Grade:11

1 Answers

SHAIK AASIF AHAMED
askIITians Faculty 74 Points
8 years ago
Hello student,
Yes f(x)=x2is a many to one mapping because f(-1)=1 and f(1)=1.
Thanks and Regards
Shaik Aasif
askIItians faculty

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