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If the codomain of a function is extending to infinity on any one or both sides ( like -1 to infinity or -infinity to 3 ), does it mean that such a function is always into?

If the codomain of a function is extending to infinity on any one or both sides ( like -1 to infinity or -infinity to 3 ), does it mean that such a function is always into?

Grade:11

1 Answers

Harsh Patodia IIT Roorkee
askIITians Faculty 907 Points
6 years ago
No, its not necessary depend on function definition some points from codomain might be excluded depending on domain.

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