Flag Algebra> functions...
question mark

Let f:N→N be strictly increasing function such that f(f(n))=3n then f(11)=?

harshit agarwal , 16 Years ago
Grade 12
anser 2 Answers
mycroft holmes

We first note that we must have f(n) >n. To prove this first its easy to see that for no n can we have f(n) = n as f([f(n)] = 3n would then yield f(n) = 3n which is a contradiction. Suppose f(n)<n, then since f is strictly increasing we have f[(f(n)] < f(n) so that 3n<f(n)<n which is again a contradiction. Thus we have established that f(n)>n for all n

 

Now, if f(1) = k>1 (since f(1) = k>1 as proved above), we have f(k) = 3 which means 3>k so that k =1 or 2. Since k>1, this gives k = 2

Hence f(2) =3 and so f(3) = f(f(2)) = 6 and similarly f(6) = 9. Now, we will attempt to plug the gap by finding f(4) and f(5). This is pretty much immediate since f(4) and f(5) must lie between f(3) = 6 and f(6) = 9 and since f(5)>f(4) we must have f(4) = 7 and f(5) = 8

 

Now f(7) = 12 and f(8) = 15, f(9) = f(f(6)) = 18

 

f(12) = f(f(7)) = 21. From a similar argument as previous, we must have f(10) = 19 and so f(11) = 20

Last Activity: 16 Years ago
Winner forever
f(f(n))=3n
Apply f on the both sides of the equation:
f(3n)=f(f(f(n)))
This simply intend to say that replacing n by f(n) :
f(3n)=3f(n)
It follows that f(3)=3f(1). If f(1)=1, then we obtain.
3=3.1=3.f(1)=f(3.1)=f(f(f(1)))=f(f(1))=f(1)=1
This employees 3=1 which is a contradiction:
So f(1)> 1 and hence
Let us assume
f(k)=3 for a natural number k
Now since k< 3
k=1,2
Since k> 1 it follows that k=2
This employees f(2)=3
Using the fact that f is an increasing function:
1< f(1)< f(2)=3
Since function gives only natural number outputs A natural number between 1 and 3 is the value of the function at 1
 
Last Activity: 3 Years ago
star
LIVE ONLINE CLASSES

Prepraring for the competition made easy just by live online class.

tv

Full Live Access

material

Study Material

removal

Live Doubts Solving

assignment

Daily Class Assignments