Hi Aritra,
This is not true.
Check that for n=1, n=2....... (3n)! will not be divisible by n!(n+1)!(n+2)!....
This result holds true only for n ≥ 3, and is quite easy to prove.
Use that the product of n-consecutive numbers, is always divisible by n!.
Hope this helps.
Best Regards,
Ashwin (IIT Madras).