take the terms 3n,3n-3,3n-6,3n-9.....upto 3 and 2n,2n-2,2n-4.........upto 2
together and take 3 common from each and similarly 2 common from each
so we get n! twice and there is one more n! is already present so when we divide n!*(n+1)!*(n+2)!
all the three n! gets cancelled and remaining n+1, n+2 is also present in the equation 1
so n!*(n+1)!*(n+2)! divides 3n! completely ------hence proved
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jitender
askiitians expert
Approved
Last Activity: 14 Years ago
Rahul Kumar
The problem is wrong.Take an example and verify.It us nt verified.
Last Activity: 14 Years ago
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