How is the constant k in F=kma, becoming 1?

Question

Abhinav · Answer

It is chosen by humans only. rest all constants such as G, are based on this.

Adarsh · Answer

k is proportionality constant. Since, 1 unit force is defined as the mass of 1kg object produces the acceleration of 1m/s 2 Therefore, 1 unit of Force = k x 1 kg x 1m/s 2 Thus k = 1.

Adarsh · Answer

Please approve if my answer finds useful.

Nicho priyatham · Answer

BY defining unit 1 newton we say that 1 newton is force that wn put a mass of 1kg to 1ms -2 XLR8n 1N=k*1*1 so 1N=k now F=ma newtons please approve

Kalyani Jayachandran Menon · Answer

The units are chosen such that k will be equal to 1

Nikhil Rodrigues · Answer

Force was not thought as a physical quantity when Newton published his laws of motion. So, Newton got the liberty to ‘define’ force and he did in such a way that it reduced complexity by making force unit the same as the product of mass unit and acceleration unit of the RHS side of the equation. Thus k became a dimensionless constant. Now, by putting m = 1, a = 1 and F = 1, we get k = 1.

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How is the constant k in F=kma, becoming 1?

How is the constant k in F=kma, becoming 1?

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