How is the constant k in F=kma, becoming 1?

How is the constant k in F=kma, becoming 1? 


6 Answers

askIITians Faculty 387 Points
9 years ago
It is chosen by humans only.

rest all constants such as G,\epsilon _{o}are based on this.
733 Points
9 years ago
k is proportionality constant.

Since, 1 unit force is defined as the mass of 1kg object produces the acceleration of 1m/s2

Therefore, 1 unit of Force = k x 1 kg x 1m/s2

Thus k = 1.

733 Points
9 years ago
Please approve if my answer finds useful.
Nicho priyatham
625 Points
9 years ago
BY defining unit  1 newton we say that 1 newton is force that wn put a mass of 1kg to 1ms-2 XLR8n
so 1N=k
now F=ma newtons 
please approve 
Kalyani Jayachandran Menon
217 Points
9 years ago
The units are chosen such that k will be equal to 1
Nikhil Rodrigues
26 Points
7 years ago
Force was not thought as a physical quantity when Newton published his laws of motion. So, Newton got the liberty to ‘define’ force and he did in such a way that it reduced complexity by making force unit the same as the product of mass unit and acceleration unit of the RHS side of the equation. Thus k became a dimensionless constant. Now, by putting m = 1, a = 1 and F = 1, we get k = 1.

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