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ifI1=integral from pi-a to a xf ofsinx and i2=integral pi-a to a f of sinx then i2 is?


3 years ago


Answers : (1)


Dear Krishna,

 please find the attachement



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3 years ago

Post Your Answer

is infinity/infinity = 1
never. infinity by infinity is never be one. it is one of the inderminant form out of 7
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udit maniyar 6 months ago
if you feel the answer is right then approve it
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Pl provide soln to the attached image!!
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