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There is a derivation given in my book which concludes to the fact that the range is same for two angles of projection, provided they are complementary. I fail to understand this fact. For example, what if we put the angle as 90 and 0 which are complimentary.practically how is the particle projected at zero degree have 0 range?isnt rolling a ball on a floor have a range?or maybe hitting the ball during billiards. Basically at zero degree I feel the motion would become rectilinear.whereas at 90 degree the range is zero as the object goes up and comes down. I have understood it mathematically by putting the angles in the range formula but not practically. Please help

There is a derivation given in my book which concludes to the fact that the range is same for two angles of projection, provided they are complementary. I fail to understand this fact. For example, what if we put the angle as 90 and 0 which are complimentary.practically how is the particle projected at zero degree have 0 range?isnt rolling a ball on a floor have a range?or maybe hitting the ball during billiards. Basically at zero degree I feel the motion would become rectilinear.whereas at 90 degree the range is zero as the object goes up and comes down. I have understood it mathematically by putting the angles in the range formula but not practically. Please help

Grade:12

1 Answers

Shivam
8 Points
9 years ago
Range is the horizontal displacement by projectile in the time in which the body is above the horizontal level(ground).Or we can say Range = orizontal component of velocity x T..,where T is the the time taken by body to go up and come down.In case of 00 projection angle vertical displacement is 0 so the time taken by projectile (T) to go up and come down is also 0 . Thus ,range becomes 0.When released at an angle of 900 horizontal component of velocity becomes 0 ,thus range becomes 0 .

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