Q 27 of friction from HC Verma. Why do we take F-umg=0 as we know that the mass slides so it must have some acceleration.then why are we taking it as 0?shouldn’t it be F- umg=ma?

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Vikas TU · Answer

It might be gievn the velocity as constant or the accleration would bezero. Check the question again.

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Q 27 of friction from HC Verma. Why do we take F-umg=0 as we know that the mass slides so it must have some acceleration.then why are we taking it as 0?shouldn’t it be F- umg=ma?

Q 27 of friction from HC Verma. Why do we take F-umg=0 as we know that the mass slides so it must have some acceleration.then why are we taking it as 0?shouldn’t it be F- umg=ma?

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Q 27 of friction from HC Verma. Why do we take F-umg=0 as we know that the mass slides so it must have some acceleration.then why are we taking it as 0?shouldn’t it be F- umg=ma?

Q 27 of friction from HC Verma. Why do we take F-umg=0 as we know that the mass slides so it must have some acceleration.then why are we taking it as 0?shouldn’t it be F- umg=ma?

1 Answers

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